## Is the P=NP Problem an NP Problem?

What I’m going to say is going to be unpopular, but I cannot reconcile my own well-being without giving you an answer to this problem from my perspective.

My only reason for reluctantly writing this, knowing what kind of reaction I could receive is, because **I abhor that some of the best minds on our planet are occupying themselves with this problem.** It pains me to no end to see humanity squandering its power for a problem that, as it is currently framed, is unanswerable. It goes further than this though. There will come a time when questions such as this one will be cast upon the junk heap of humanity’s growth throughout history. It will take its rightful place along such ideas as phrenology.

Here’s why I say this:

**The problem is firmly and completely embedded in ***Functional Reductionism***.** I say this, because the problem’s framing requires us to peel away the contextual embedding of the problems for which it is supposed to clarify.

This is just one of its problems. Here’s another:

Since the data for this problem (and those like it) are themselves algorithms, **they are compelled to be functionally reduced versions of mind problem solving (varying types of heuristics and decision problems) which reduces the problem’s causal domain and its universe of discourse even further.** How can a specification based upon functionally reduced data be again used as data for the problem’s solution in the first place?

**That means that this problem has no ****independent existence**** nor *** causal efficacy.* Everywhere I have looked at this problem, the definitions of NP-Hard and NP-Complete do not lead to proving anything useful. We cannot ‘generalise’ the mind by reducing it to some metric of complexity. Complexity is also not how the universe works as Occam’s Razor[1] shows.

I am prepared to defend my position should someone have the metal to test me on this. Another thing: I wish I could have left this alone, but we all need to wake up to this nonsense.

[1] http://bit.ly/2GHbRkW How Occam’s Razor Works

[Quora] http://bit.ly/2EuRdP3

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## Is Mathematics Or Philosophy More Fundamental?

**Is Mathematics Or Philosophy More Fundamental?**

Answer: **Philosophy is more fundamental than mathematics.**

This is changing, but mathematics is incapable at this time of *comprehensively* describing *epistemology,* whereas, philosophy can.

Hence; mathematics is restrained to pure *ontology.* It does not reach far enough into the universe to distinguish anything other than *ontologies.* This will change soon. I am working on exactly this problem. See http://mathematica-universalis.com for more information on my work. (I’m not selling anything on this site.)

Also, mathematics cannot be done without expressing some kind of philosophy to underlie any axioms which it needs to function.

**PROOF:**

Implication is a ‘given’ in mathematics. **It assumes a ***relation*** which we call ***implication.* Mathematics certainly ‘consumes’ them as a means to create inferences, *but the inference form, the antecedent, and the consequent are implicit axioms based upon an underlying metaphysics.*

**Ergo: ***philosophy*** is more ***general*** and ***universal*** than mathematics.**

Often epistemology is considered separate from metaphysics, but that is incorrect, because you cannot answer questions as to ‘How do we know?” without an underlying metaphysical framework within which such a question and answer can be considered.